I mean that literally says "Habeas Corpus as we know it today was not made law until 1679", reinforcing the original point re. Magna Carta.Here's the British Library website for you:
Habeas Corpus is an Act of Parliament, still in force today, which ensures that no one can be imprisoned unlawfully. Literally translated, ‘habeas corpus’ means ‘you may have the body’ (if legal procedures are satisfied). This sounds like a strange phrase, but in medieval times it was the expression used to bring a prisoner into court. It later became used to fight against arbitrary detention by the authorities.
In 1215 Magna Carta stated that no one could be imprisoned unlawfully, and the first recorded use of this provision was in 1305, but Habeas Corpus as we know it today was not made law until 1679. Although the law is still in effect, Habeas Corpus has not been continually used since 1679. It was suspended in 1793 when there were concerns that the French Revolution might inspire rebellion in England. It was also suspended several times in the 20th century. Internment (detention without charge) was employed in World War I and II, and during many periods of the conflict in Northern Ireland in the later 20th century. Today, detention without charge is back on the political agenda in the debates surrounding anti-terror legislation.
Regardless, whoever wrote that hasn't done their research (though in fairness, whilst it says that the provision is in Magna Carta, it doesn't say that's where its origins lie). Much like a previous discussion in this thread re. the origins of the meringue, it's something that's been repeated so often it's commonly believed without question, even by academics who should know better. I could tell you all about translation theorists and Cicero on that front.